Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 09:03
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What life lesson did you learn the hard way?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why is it rare for someone to despise both the Democrats and Republicans?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?